8 Jan
2017
8 Jan
'17
6:18 p.m.
Patrik Eklund wrote:
Since the Incompleteness Theorem uses the Liar Paradox, why is it called the Incompleteness Theorem and not the Incompleteness Paradox?
Because it's a theorem, not a paradox. Indeed it's one of the basic results that sets the stage for modern developments in classical logic and set theory. Best, jb [For admin and other information see: http://www.mta.ca/~cat-dist/ ]