The use-mention distinction and category theory

Hello, I was wondering if someone of the categories list could answer this question: In Godel's/Tarski's theorem and the Halting problem, the use-mention distinction (e.g. Boston is populous, but "Boston" is disyllabic) is essential. Is there an analog to the use-mention distinction in category theory or is the use-mention distinction just its own principle independent of category theory? Any suggestion, insight, clarification would be appreciated. Many Thanks! Baruch [For admin and other information see: http://www.mta.ca/~cat-dist/ ]