9 Nov
2011
9 Nov
'11
10:28 p.m.
Also, in logic, "and" goes in pair with "or", "for all" goes in pair with "there exists". But implication is always left alone. Why is it so?
I am afraid logic is polyamorous: 1. "and" goes with "implies" because they are adjoint. 2. "and" goes with "or" because they are dual. By the way: 1. "forall" goes with "weakening" because it is adjoint to it on the right. 2. "exists" goes with "weakening" because it is adjoint to it on the left. But why is "forall" dual to "exists"? With kind regards, Andrej [For admin and other information see: http://www.mta.ca/~cat-dist/ ]