On Mon, 22 Jun 2009 09:17:05 AM EDT, "Prof. Peter Johnstone" <P.T.Johnstone@dpmms.cam.ac.uk> in response to: Andrew Stacey <andrew.stacey@math.ntnu.no> wrote, in part:
On Fri, 19 Jun 2009, Andrew Stacey wrote:
... over the finite skeleta.
Not really a contribution to the mathematical question, but I'm struck by the fact that both Andrew Salch and Andrew Stacey, in their replies to Steve Vickers, use the plural "skeleta". I used to do that when I was a student, as a way of winding-up my teachers, but it isn't justifiable.
The English word "skeleton" is indeed derived from a Greek root (the past participle of the verb "skellein", to wither or dry up), but it doesn't exist as a noun in Greek. There is therefore no justification for giving it an imagined Greek plural. Having in my time devoted some effort to fighting the bogus (but in fact more justifiable) Greek plural "topoi", I feel bound to protest against this one too. ...
The generic-seeming example "phenomenon/phenomena" certainly *suggests* a parallel "skeleton/skeleta" -- but it would also suggest "polygon/polyga", which I think we all would agree is nonsense. Peter is merely (justifiably) pointing out that "skeleton/skeleta" is as much nonsense as "polygon/polyga", and I'm with him 100% on that score. [As for the plural of "topos", I guess I'm in the mugwump camp that would *write* it as "topoi" (pace Peter), but *pronounce* it as "toposes" :-) . English was never very strong at phonetic consistency of pronunciation; witness GBShaw's "phonetic" spelling of FISH: "ghotip".] Cheers, -- Fred PS: "ghotip"? "gh" as in COUGH, "o" as in WOMEN, "ti" as in NATION, and "p" (silent) as in PNEUMONIA. [For admin and other information see: http://www.mta.ca/~cat-dist/ ]